> Wealth inequality in Colombia is high, but actually lower than wealth inequality in the US by most measures.

Really?

CIA Gini coefficients: US 47.0 (2014), Colombia 53.5 (2012)

Ratio of the average income of the top 10% to the bottom 10%: US 18.5, Colombia 60.4

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_income_eq...

Granted, this is income not wealth inequality. And there are many ways of measuring it. I would like to know your source.

http://fortune.com/2015/09/30/america-wealth-inequality/ (the relevant list is at the end of the article)

See also https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_distribut... for wealth ginis.

I'm sure there are lots of different measures that give lots of different results. My point was just that the US and Colombia aren't radically different in terms of economic inequality.

The US is not a high bar for comparison of wealth inequality. In fact wealth in equality in the US is a problem, and by any measures Columbia is either about the same or much worse.

The goal is places like Denmark.

South America in general has serious inequality problems.

>My point was just that the US and Colombia aren't radically different in terms of economic inequality.

What if you take into account the non-linear value of money, though? This seems to be missing in most accounts of inequality.

> Wealth inequality in Colombia is high, but actually lower than wealth inequality in the US by most measures

When everyone's at the bottom, there's little wealth inequality

Sure, but that's not the situation in Colombia. Colombia has a high level of wealth inequality.

If somebody tried to make a sweeping generalized comment about the country as a whole based upon that one experience I would expect exactly that.

There should be that reminder here too