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Parallel evolution of two strains of smallpox might have meant still no immunity to the Spanish version several centuries later.

And the diseases were only a small factor in the outcome of the colonization. Guns being a much larger factor, for example.



> And the diseases were only a small factor in the outcome of the colonization. Guns being a much larger factor, for example.

I don't know how you get there. I'm pretty sure diseases went ahead of the colonists in many cases and wiped out entire civilizations before the colonists ever made contact. Even if it didn't wipe out literally everyone, it would have significantly destabilized or collapsed all significant political or economic systems.

Relatively speaking, any advantages of guns versus bows and arrows seem small. If I were inclined to make arguments about military technology, I'd speculate that plate armor and horses were more significant advantages than guns, but all of these pale in comparison to contagion.


In the context of military technology, ships and wagons are the big thing. Ships and wagons to carry food to troops and establish supply lines.

Logistics wins wars. With exception of WW1 and WW2, soldiers didn't really die in large numbers to the enemy. Soldiers died to the cold, to disease, and deserted due to lack of food / supplies / morale.

There are occasional exceptions where large numbers of soldiers died in battle... but those exceptions become remembered for centuries. It certainly wasn't a regular event (except in WW1 / WW2, which truly were horrific).


Keep in mind that the technological advantage was eroded rapidly. People happily sold all of it to the locals, including firearms. There's something of a stereotypical image of a native American warrior on horseback, but that's not a native animal.


>There's something of a stereotypical image of a native American warrior on horseback, but that's not a native animal.

..with a lever action, effectively fighting a US army lead by battle hardened civil war veterans.

The natives weren't military slouches. What they lacked was the population and material resources to field fighting forces that could go toe to toe with the Europeans.


Even in WW2 it can be argued that the Allies biggest advantage on the western front was the USA build Liberty ships, which were built really quickly and mainly used for supply.


> Allies biggest advantage

As a strategy, you could do a lot worse than Liberty ships and a lot of Russians.


Was this generally the case for the native populations of the Americas? I'd actually be very interested in some works on native american supply line( problem)s.


I don't know much about Native American war theory.

But I know that Medieval English Longbowmen were only given something like 6 arrows per battle. And even that was enough to stretch the capacities of Medieval Britain's supply chain. 10,000 Longbowmen x 6 arrows is 60,000 arrows per battle.

IIRC, it was said that during wars, there wasn't any gooses or ducks to be found in all of Britain. They've all been killed, and their feathers plucked for the war arrows.


>>> Medieval English Longbowmen were only given something like 6 arrows per battle.

IIRC records for Henry in the Tower of London show a total of 3/4 Million arrows paid for and collected for the invasion that lead to Agincourt. With an estimated 5,000 archers at Agincourt.

Modern reconstructions show about 6 arrows per minute - and again IIRC ten minutes of volley fire against the French lines - something like 60 arrows per archer, or around 300,000 arrows. Even in plate armour that shits gonna hurt.


>I'm pretty sure diseases went ahead of the colonists in many cases and wiped out entire civilizations before the colonists ever made contact. Even if it didn't wipe out literally everyone, it would have significantly destabilized or collapsed all significant political or economic systems.

This is absolutely what happened to the Incan empire predatory to its subjugation to a few hundred conquistadors led by Francisco Pizarro. For those interested check out Last Days of the Incas.


Is that true? I've read that 90+% of the population died from diseases, the vast majority without ever knowing about the European conquerors (that is, they never saw a gun). Imagine if 90% of the people in your nearest city died. How difficult would it be for a new group, immune to whatever killed almost everyone in the city, to move in and take over?


I've always wondered why this wasn't a two-way street. Wouldn't native people also have diseases to share?

I know the imperialists weaponized their diseases and intentionally tried to spread it and that may be the difference.

Usually the smallpox theory is presented in a way that removes agency and culpability from the conquerers. It's always struck me as remarkably convenient and quite unbelievable; they were an idyllic people in some wondrous land without their own disease. Oh really now ... we're talking the Caribbeans here.

Even the Wikipedia page on the matter (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Influx_of_disease_in_the_Car...), does it cite epidemiological sources with someone looking at like bone sample DNA? No. It's economic and social science. Excuse me for questioning the qualification of economists for being able to authoritatively make confident statements about historical virology.

It may be true but I'd like more evidence than convenient stories by the descendent of a conquerer about how by sheer coincidence his/her ancestors were actually not guilty of genocide and as of by miracle, North America became a land without people; it just happens to follow Frederick Jackson Turners Frontier Thesis a little too closely to be called a coincidence.


I think parts of it are deeply controversial, but Guns, Germs, and Steel argues this was because Europe had higher population densities for longer + more domesticated livestocks providing a more potent breading ground for deadly diseases. I also think that disease being a factor hardly removes culpability from the conquers, there are plenty of quotes of some of them saying things about how the plagues were a gift from god and similarly terrible things. I also am not an export, but I believe there was some transfer in the other direction, particularly syphilis.

If we're just speculating though, I wonder if the fact that one group was traveling by boat could have insulated the disease transfer a bit. Most really bad diseases would run their course by the time a sailing ship made it back across the ocean and certainly people knew to quarantine ships with sick people on them in Europe. For a disease the ship crews were resistant to reach the Americas they just had to visit a village, where to go the other way it had to survive an in built month plus quarantine which is plenty of time for most diseases to show up


It's possible that syphilis was brought back to Europe from the New World by the Spanish. That hasn't been proven though.

From https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_syphilis :

The first recorded outbreak of syphilis in Europe occurred in 1494/1495 in Naples, Italy, during a French invasion ...


From what I've read, native populations had less frequent interactions with livestock (through which many diseases arise) and less concentration in poor-sanitation settings (e.g. urban centers without sewers), both of which gave European settlers more exposure to transmissible pathogens in the centuries before settlement.


The usual explanation is that the Europeans lived in much closer proximity with livestock... smallpox probably came from cows, etc.

Also it's generally believed that syphilis didn't exist in the Old World before 1492, so there's at least one disease that probably made the opposite journey.

However, the disease narrative doesn't absolve the Europeans. Nobody forced the European powers to colonize the Americas. If they'd packed up and gone home, even if the Americas had still been decimated by smallpox, they would have bounced back, given the opportunity. Human populations tend to do that.

(The Black Death is sort of an exception, it suppressed European population for a long time, because it kept coming back, killing a bunch of people, and then going away again. But- Europe thrived during that period, the Renaissance was coterminous with very bad bubonic plague outbreaks)


> I've always wondered why this wasn't a two-way street. Wouldn't native people also have diseases to share?

They did: syphilis! But the Europeans had far more diseases to share because there was far more animal domestication going on in the Old World. And most of our diseases came as a result of that animal domestication, so they had already spread through the population which developed immunity in the millennia between the first human infection and the Columbian Exchange.

> Usually the smallpox theory is presented in a way that removes agency and culpability from the conquerers. It's always struck me at remarkably convenient and quite unbelievable; they were an idyllic people in some welder land without their own diseases, oh really now ... we're talking the Caribbeans here

Typically I hear "the smallpox theory" presented as "Europeans killed 90% of Native Americans including by disease" as though Europeans collectively set out to exterminate Native Americans. To be certain, there was a lot of brutality and genocide and even some deliberate spread of disease, but no European could have credibly believed that the disease would spread throughout the new world to such effect.


but no European could have credibly believed that the disease would spread throughout the new world to such effect.

Certainly not, but once they figured out what was going on, they certainly aided and abetted the spread of these new diseases.


Which particular people? Was it like military people under orders from European leaders?

Maybe someone could help me understand -- with such a prolific practice it must have been diaried and such? What are the best primary/secondary sources detailing the practice.

I've heard the "they gave blankets but they knew the blankets had smallpox infection". But we presumably know who the they were.

Presumably a lot of the colonists were sick as well. But not sick enough that the indigenous population noticed and stayed away.

I guess people's capacity for evil is always greater than one can imagine.


There is exactly one documented case of deliberate attempts to spread smallpox among the Indians, from the British during the French & Indian war.

https://www.history.com/news/colonists-native-americans-smal...


They didn’t find out what was going on until the 20th century… Before that they thought it was God’s judgment on the heathens or something.


They sent blankets used by infected people. They didn't understand germ theory, but they understood contagion.


You should probably know that there is literally not one fully confirmed case of this ever happening.

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3qslhq/where...


There's one, at Fort Pitt during the French and Indian war, as documented by multiple letters, as described in your link.


Didn’t the first documented cases of this occurs a hundred of more years after most of the natives had already died (18th vs the 16th century)? By the time Europeans started colonizing NA most of locals had already died to the diseases spreading from the south.


In my reference, I acknowledge that how I used "they" was ambiguous. I meant people practicing war before germ theory.

If we ignore this example, we still have dead and infected bodies/livestock being catapulted into cities.


I acknowledged that much, but my point is they had no idea that these “new people” had no immunity and that the sickness would tear through the population so effectively. Moreover, “they” isn’t “all Europeans”—we need to be careful who we blame or else we verge on racism ourselves.


First, it was a two-way street. Syphilis, for one, is believed to have originated in the new world and have been brought to Europe post-contact.

But Europe, Asia, and Africa combined was a much bigger population pool, so more opportunities for mutation and transmission leading to more types of infectious diseases.


IIRC that certain aspects of how livestock were raised in Europe contributed to a long history of more virulent illnesses so that when the European population eventually met the North American it was the North American that suffered.


> Wouldn't native people also have diseases to share?

Not all diseases are equally harmful, right? Perhaps the indigenous populations of the Americas simply lacked a disease as deadly as those brought by the Europeans.


IIRC a lot of Eurasian diseases were a result of long-term close contact with domesticated animals. Guess which side of the Atlantic didn't really have domesticated animals....


CPG Grey has a great video on this exact subject:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JEYh5WACqEk

In short, you need cities to develop these types of viruses. Cities where the virus can just keep killing, without ever hitting a dead end.


Fwiw that's based on "Guns, Germs and Steel" which is not very respected as an academic work


So, I just went down a rabbit hole of criticisms on Guns, Germs, and Steel... it's largely coming from the far left and far right. Very few moderates.

The far left says it's a cop out on racism, blaming white evil on natural conditions. The far right says that it's too PC, that plenty of other places had the right conditions and gives no credit to culture or innovation.

So both the far left and far right want to take credit from chaos and put it on the people: either to hate them, or to take pride.

This in and of itself is not proof of anything. But if something pisses off far left and right at the same time, I tend to think of it as a green flag.


You're not looking at any of the criticisms I've seen, then. Here's a brief summary, off the top of my head:

* Jared Diamond posits an explanation of megafauna extinction in North America that's heavily predicated on the Clovis-first hypothesis and the overextinction hypothesis. The former hypothesis is very thoroughly discredited, and the latter is also generally disfavored, especially in the it's-the-primary-cause way that Jared Diamond uses it. (Specifically, it should be noted that the megafauna extinction in North America also coincides pretty closely with the Younger Dryas, whose climatic effects were most pronounced in North America).

* The primary north-south/east-west transmission hypothesis doesn't actually hold that well up to evidence. The two things I'd note are a) local topography has a major effect on climate that's not accounted for, and b) if you look at the transmission of cereal crops, there's very little transmission between the Mediterranean/Mesopotamian basin and China basin but universal spread of maize along the vertical axis of the Americas--the complete opposite of what the theory predicts.

* I don't have a link handy, but I've seen someone more versed in the history of infectious diseases point out that the killer diseases that Diamond identifies don't appear to have actually become epidemic in the manner that Diamond asserts.

* Diamond also places way too heavy on emphasis on the unreliable accounts of the conquistadors in explaining how the Spanish conquests happened.

In short, the main problem with Guns, Germs, and Steel is that... it gets the facts wrong. And people have brought these complaints to Diamond previously, so it's not like he's aware that there are facts which destroy his thesis, and Diamond's response is to double-down on the thesis without trying to explain why the countervailing facts might be incorrect interpretations or whatnot, or providing other nuggets of insight to bolster his thesis, just continually reassert that he's right.

Try reading Charles Mann's 1491. It goes into more well-researched explanations of pre-Columbian cultures that would help you understand why Diamond's thesis is wrong.


Most of these points don't seem central to Diamonds thesis as I interpreted it.

They do negate some of the spurious theories, but the central theory (IMO) is that there's a whole lot of luck involved in global domination, and that luck is not evenly spread.

The one about germs being less of a killer is definitely very interesting though. That's totally central, though -- if not germs doing the killing -- it'd just fall back onto guns. If you happen to dig up the link, I'd love to read through it.


If it's just guns, you have to account for the number of failed attempts, and the century-long military effort it took to hold territory. Cortés got his ass handed to him repeatedly in military conflicts.


> century-long military effort it took to hold territory

Centuries, actually. Indigenous peoples in the Americas were able to hold out against European, and later successor state, attempts to acquire their territory until around 1900.


Uh, go to a place like r/badhistory where they actually cite sources for their problems with it for a start

Actual academics have problems with it


I went down another rabbit hole on r/badhistory.

There's definitely plenty of holes in the theories of GG&S, if that's what you mean by "academics have problems with it" === "it is not a perfect theory."

But overall, it seems most of the points hold more than enough water to be worth merit. None of them perfect, but vastly better than throwing the whole thing out.

-----

Also, holy crap I'm giving you the benefit of the doubt here, but the first few threads I went into were... blatantly far left (as Reddit tends to be). Seriously though: spiraling into tangents of communism, your classic woke/sassy "dunk" lingo, clearly had some external bias bone to pick. I'm not sure r/badhistory is a community worth considering the acme of academia, only based off my short interactions with it. But maybe the worst just came up first?


I don't read r/badhistory but occasionally r/AskHistorians instead (where why GG&S is bad is literally in the FAQ), and in perusing old threads there, I came across this take that might be interesting to you: https://old.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4o1n26/i_wan...

While I think you are probably more likely to sympathize with restricteddata than anthropology_nerd, I do think that anthropology_nerd's comments may be able to elucidate a little bit why GG&S provokes such hostility among academics.


Thanks a ton for sharing that. This is -- so far -- the highest calibre of this debate I've seen.

I think both parties are talking passed each-other, having missed a very, very important statement:

> You recommended people read GG&S with a grain of salt, but the vast majority of casual readers lack that salt when it comes to understanding the flaws in the book.

Whether or not this salt is there seems like the addition / omission from which each side argues. With salt, it's a fine enough book. The broad strokes are close enough. Without salt -- as in "I'm a professional because I read this book" -- it probably gets really, really annoying.

I definitely agree that nuance is important, and the book should put more effort into not presenting itself as fact. But it's pop-history. It wouldn't be pop if it didn't, and what would be pop would be even worse IMO.


IDK, I'm generally on r/badeconomics which is the best one of the badX gang, but as far as I saw, badhistory was very informal but generally fine?

Like, sure there's probably a bias to the left but it's not the hellhole of r/badphilosophy for instance there. They won't advocate for nonsense stuff,just use the terminology from social sciences


Yeah, in my experience there's a lot of misinformation floating around r/badhistory. It's not uncommon to have some comments halfway down (below all the highly upvoted snark and attempts at humor) that point out the inaccuracies in a post, so that's something at least.

But a large part of the problem with r/badhistory, and r/AskHistorians as well, is that it seems like most of the users don't realize that being better at history than most of Reddit is an extremely low bar. There's certainly some good stuff that ends up there (well, in r/AskHistorians, less so in r/badhistory), but there's still a lot of junk as well, and too many people act as if the stuff there is equivalent to published work by professional historians.


A lot of what he says in it is uncontroversial stuff that he didn't come up with himself. But you don't get much academic respect for things others have said before you, even if you succeed at bringing it to a new audience (especially if you don't pepper it with source references, which I don't recall GGS doing!)

Being a wildly successful popularizer is always risky for an academic. The most serious criticisms I've seen have been about tangential stuff.


I think the other, more important, factor CPG Grey mentions in the video is domesticated animals.


Sorry. You're correct. I haven't watched the video in a bit.


I think the key is density in Europe vs North America. Europe was living in densely packed cities with domesticated animals in close proximity, while North America had smaller communities and less domestication. As a general rule, this makes disease spread and zoonotic viruses much less likely.


> I've always wondered why this wasn't a two-way street. Wouldn't native people also have diseases to share?

Cities are a breeding ground for diseases. America wasn’t densely populated at the time.


Population density and totals, and their proximity to animals and their waste, matter. Extensive trade and empire building exposes people to new pathogens and allows new ones to develop, as well.


Well, syphilis went the other way


This is not accurate. Individual epidemics did not have mortalities even approaching the 90% range. What actually happened were dozens of epidemics over decades or centuries. Moreover, outside the Northeast, Columbian epidemics are closely associated with persistent European contact and colonization.

It should also be noted that human populations are incredibly resilient to epidemics. In the absence of "other things", populations suffering catastrophic virgin soil epidemics will typically rebound to pre-epidemic levels in decades. It's not a sufficient explanation for the centuries-long decline of indigenous American populations. The black death was no less severe and successor epidemics continued throughout Europe in the 15th century, yet we see nothing like the demographic collapse of the Americas post-contact.


More than 90% collapse in Mexico from 1520 to 1580, mostly from three epidemics. Starting from ~22m, 8m (37%) dead from a 1520 smallpox epidemic, 12-15m dead (~80%) from a 1545 cocolitzli epidemic, and another ~2m dead (~50%) from a 1576 cotolitzli epidemic. Mexican population didn't recover to its previous highs until the 20th century.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cocoliztli_epidemics


Isn't that because Europe was able to bounce back while in the Americas, the diseases were immediately followed up by the European colonizers who didn't give them time or space to repopulate?


That's exactly the point. Epidemic disease alone is an insufficient explanation for the demographic collapse of indigenous Americans.


Is it not?

We have a more recent example in Hawaii. Hawaii was not subjugated by any foreign power until the 1890s. That being said, the Native Hawaiian population pretty much collapsed from a high of 300,000 in 1770 to 20,000 in 1920.


Yes, but guns are an insufficient explanation for the complete overthrown of indigenous Americans. Or even the primary cause.


> And the diseases were only a small factor in the outcome of the colonization. Guns being a much larger factor, for example.

That's quite the claim to toss out. I can certainly imagine gunless conquistadors taking over New Spain in a slightly longer span just by waiting for people to die.


Also, the guns the conquistadors had kinda sucked and at that time not massively better than bow and arrow (they required less strength and skill, but skilled archers were just as good, and the conquistadors could’ve sent them instead). Arguably the steel swords and armor, plus horses, were much more important.


Fun fact, the battle of Tenochtitlan was one of the last times trebuchets were used in war.


> Parallel evolution of two strains of smallpox might have meant still no immunity to the Spanish version several centuries later.

Though by the same token it could also have produced a plague that was devastating to the conquistadors, and might then have been carried back to Europe for Black Death Round 2, devastating the imperial powers and generating a long-lasting fear of New World contact. Lots of interesting AU scenarios to consider here.


That's a very good point.


Between “discovery” and permanent settlement of the continental US, an estimated 55 million Native Americans died of disease. [1]

The colonization of North America would have gone quite differently with that many folks to contend with.

1. https://www.businessinsider.com/climate-changed-after-europe...


In particular we can imagine it might look more similar to how China, India, Africa, etc. turned out, with subjugated local populations serving under foreign imperial governors. The eventual collapse of the empire might then result in most of the Americas being populated by ethnically Native American states.


In a lot of ways, though, the European subjugation of the Americas was the "tutorial mode" for European subjugation of Asia and Africa. Among other things, note that the business end of European colonization of subsaharan Africa and South and East Asia started ~a century after the colonization of the Americas (thanks to proximity, the Middle East and North Africa were much more tightly coupled to European history, and colonization played out differently there). The scramble for Africa and the opening of Japan didn't happen until the mid-late 19th century!


Not sure. China, India, Africa etc were colonized for much shorter periods of time.

One point of comparison would be Ireland. They didn't suffer from colonist-brought diseases, because obviously they had all the same diseases already, but they did suffer a precipitous decline in population.

Another example would be the west coast of Africa, which was similarly colonized from early modernity on.


> but they did suffer a precipitous decline in population.

That was a TIL for me, because I was about to say tat the "precipitous decline in population" only happened in the mid-19th century, i.e. a couple of centuries after Cromwell's campaign (the point where the English power over Ireland really became a colonial one), but then I skimmed through the History section of the Ireland wikipedia page [1] and I read this:

> This control was consolidated during the wars and conflicts of the 17th century, including the English and Scottish colonisation in the Plantations of Ireland, the Wars of the Three Kingdoms and the Williamite War.

and

> Physician-general William Petty estimated that 504,000 Catholic Irish and 112,000 Protestant settlers died, and 100,000 people were transported, as a result of the war.[66] If a prewar population of 1.5 million is assumed, this would mean that the population was reduced by almost half.

Again, I personally had no idea that Ireland's population was reduced by almost half immediately after the English conquest that happened during Cromwell's time, that's kind of gruesome and imo not studied enough outside of Ireland and the UK (I suppose that this subject is studied in there).

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ireland#The_Kingdom_of_Ireland


> estimated 55 million Native Americans died of disease

These estimates vary wildly, by more than a factor of 10.

One large source of error is the accounts by Spanish Conquistadors. They are suspected of greatly inflating the numbers they conquered, in order to boost their prestige back in Spain. It also seems doubtful their censuses were more than just wild guesses.


> And the diseases were only a small factor in the outcome of the colonization. Guns being a much larger factor, for example.

I'm not so sure about that. Writing gave a huge advantage to the Western forces. By that I mean military men had access to a couple thousand years of military tactics books. Having advanced weapons is one thing, knowing strategy and tactics is quite another.

For example, there are battles where the Romans were outnumbered 10:1 and still defeated a better armed barbarian army. The Romans were organized, disciplined, and trained to fight as a unit. They would just slaughter the barbarians who fought as individuals.

Remember, guns at the time were muzzle-loading, and had some rube goldberg contraption to light the powder. They were unreliable, inaccurate, and very slow to reload.


People in America were not stupid, there were not repetition guns yet, like Repeating rifle or early machine guns.

The biggest significant factor for Spanish people was getting the support of the local population. It was not foreign powers against local powers. But local powers against local powers.

And that was because local empires were terrible with the subdued tribes. There was human sacrifices with subdued tribes and they were slaves. Under Spanish rule those who supported the Spaniards were soon considered Spanish citizens, a huge improvement.

And Rome usually worked the other way around. Rome did outnumber everybody and squashed any opposition. First they did because mandatory Conscription ("the draft")in the army, an army of peasants that was way more numerous than anybody else and a population that will replace casualties much faster than anybody else.

The Army of peasants did fight against elite warriors that were much better trained and equipped but were way less numerous, for example against the Macedonian Army,and they won.

Finally, after growing and organizing themselves much more, Rome will use infrastructure that only they had like the Mediterranean sea and specially roads to move massive amounts of soldiers very fast from one part of the Empire to another.

This was the equivalent of the train that will make it possible for Germany, Russia or the US moving so much people to the war front fast.

It was the Romans those who did outnumber everybody else concentrating the army at one point, defeating the enemy and moving the Army to another place.

And it was Julius Caesar who wrote "divide et impera" because that was the Roman way of doing things, dividing their enemies, and fighting them isolated with a much bigger army.


> People in America were not stupid

I didn't say they were. I said they lacked writing. Writing preserves orders of magnitude more information for others than oral tradition possibly can.

Yes, I know the Mayans had writing, and their books were burned by the Spanish. But the Spanish conquered the Inca and the Aztecs, not the Mayans.

The ideas of recruiting the locals to your side, and divide and conquer, are part of western military tradition. If the Aztecs and Inca used such tactics, I'd be interested if you have sources.

There were battles that the Romans fought and won against the barbarian much greater numbers. That isn't going to happen without superior organization, discipline, training and tactics.

And finally, the Roman idea of conquest was to assimilate, not exterminate.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Defeat_of_Boudica

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Alesia

And, of course, this triumph of discipline, tactics, organization and training:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Thermopylae


> Writing gave a huge advantage to the Western forces. By that I mean military men had access to a couple thousand years of military tactics books. Having advanced weapons is one thing, knowing strategy and tactics is quite another.

If memory serves me correctly, military tactics didn't really become a genre until the late 16th century, after the Spanish conquest of the Aztec and Inca empires. And during the early 16th century, it's quite likely that most of the soldiers (including the commanders!) would have been illiterate and thus not really able to read any extant military tactics books, especially whatever survived of Greek or Roman military texts.


Since the Conquistador commanders sent back written reports, I doubt they were illiterate. And even if they were illiterate, they were trained by military people who were. And even if those were also illiterate, they were steeped in military traditions of discipline, organization, tactics, etc., that went back to the greeks.

The way they operated was clear evidence of military sophistication.


> And even if those were also illiterate, they were steeped in military traditions of discipline, organization, tactics, etc., that went back to the greeks.

And why couldn't, say, the Inca draw on the Wari, who could draw on the Moche, who could draw on the Chavin, who date back even before the Greeks?

The problem with claiming the utility of writing in developing military tactics is that Western Europe doesn't have a tradition of discussing military tactics in written texts until the Early Modern period. There's nothing like Sun Tzu's Art of War that keeps getting passed down and talked about; any transmission of tactics is going to happen via practical experience in a kind of apprenticeship--which is exactly the same method of transmission an illiterate society is going to do for military tactics.

Or you could do what the Aztecs did and send all of your boys (rich or poor) to school to learn how to become warriors, come to think of it.


The only reason we know how Pizarro conquered the Inca is because he wrote it down. The bulk of what we know about Inca life comes from the Spanish who wrote it down. Most of the rest comes from archaeology and guesswork.

If you've got evidence that the Inca military had organized tactics, like units, feinting maneuvers, flanking attacks, procedures for taking fortified positions, covering fire, strategic retreat, breastworks, defense in depth, etc., I'm interested.

We do know the Inca had no plan for when their leader was captured but not killed. But Pizarro knew about that one, and that's how he defeated an empire. Disrupting the enemy's command and control is a well-understood technique in Western military tradition.


No, you are wrong. The Western Europe inherited a lot of experience, tactics and fighting methods from the Roman empire.

And OFC from their enemies.


Here you go, Bernal Diaz del Castillo's account of the conquest of Mexico, written as a soldier in Cortez' company: https://www.gutenberg.org/files/32474/32474-h/32474-h.htm


I strongly recommend reading this for anyone who's interested. It's a really interesting view of what Mexico looked like prior to Spanish colonization, told from a Spanish perspective of course.

It also became clear that the Spanish, despite their superior technology, were so outnumbered that they wouldn't have been successful if it weren't for their local allies. They were nearly all killed in a desperate escape from Tenochtitlan when things went downhill.


Source? Guns of the period weren’t very effective in that period. Most accounts I’ve seen attribute the conquistadors success to disease and political instability.


If I'm remembering Guns, Germs, and Steel correctly, a popular/pluasible theory is that even without the disease conquistador swords and armor were so much better than the natives, they'd eventually win regardless. Something about more advanced metallurgy.

Having horses may also have helped. There were no beasts of burden (iirc) in North America until the Spanish arrived.


Well, there were around 3000 Spanish conquistadors. Could they really conquer the whole Aztec empire (5 mln people) without alliances with local tribes?


Without local tribes? Probably not, but that’s almost always how conquering actually happens (by exploiting existing fault lines). The situation with Alexander the Great is kind of representative. Alexander the Great had an army of about 30,000 people and conquered the Persian Empire which had a population of about 50 million. The Conquistadors had 3000 and conquered the Aztec Empire which had a population of 5 million, although the Conquistadors also had the benefit of disease traveling before them and not just better tactics but also far superior metallurgy. It doesn’t necessarily take an enormous advantage to conquer large territories, and the Conquistadors had numerous advantages.


The biggest advantage the Conquistadors has was everyone else in the area fucking hated the Aztec. They were horrible to have as neighbors and when any chance to fuck them over, the Spanish, came everyone jumped on board.


That was my point above that everyone seems to have missed. Even if diseases wiped out 90+% of the local population, they would still greatly outnumber the conquistadors. So it wasn't purely a balance of manpower. Sure, the diseases weakened the resistance, but it wasn't the deciding factor. Diamond says as much in his book.


Disease was still very much the deciding factor. The europeans had an advantage in technology, but not a staggering one. Cortez's forces were successfully defeated by the Aztecs on more than one occasion, and it was only after disease wiped out a large portion of Tenochtitlan's population and a protracted siege that Cortez and his allies could wear down their defenses enough to seize the city. When Pizarro entered Peru, the area had already been severely depopulated by disease and civil war, the civil war itself being kicked off by the death of both the Emperor and his heir dying of small pox. He convinced the winner of that civil war to visit him unarmed and then captured him and masscred his retinue, and used his hostage to get the Inca generals to stand down. When the Incas eventually rebelled, they too were successful in the field against the spanish - Manco Inca managed to wipe out 4 relief columns sent to break his Siege of Cuzco. Guerilla tactics were common but Manco also defeated the Spanish in open battles, such as the Battle of Ollantaytambo. While Manco was ultimately unsuccessful in seizing control of Cuzco, the Spanish likewise were unable to defeat him, and his Neo-Inca state survived for decades.


It would also mean smallpox would spread the other way. It’s interesting that the transfer of disease was so heavily one-sided.


It’s not surprising at all. If you assume naively that development rate of a novel disease is proportional to population, then the World, which had a 6:1 greater population would have 6 times as many communicable diseases. Similar argument if you base it off of land mass, number of wild animals, number of domesticated animals, etc.

(Actually, I do think the New World peoples were particularly prolific when it came to domesticating plants… they punched way above their population size in terms of number of today’s staple foods they domesticated… plus chocolate, vanilla, etc…)


I’ve read that most human viruses jumped from domesticated animals. The pre-Columbian American peoples notoriously had almost no domesticated animals, with I think just one exception being the llama. So I think that’s supposedly the primary factor, less so raw population.


Indeed, I even mentioned that. ;)

> ”Similar argument if you base it off of… number of domesticated animals…”

But again, I think that fact isn’t surprising, either, considering the Old world is much larger and had more wild animals and more humans than the New World.


You also had millions of years for diseases to evolve to infect people in the Old World. Then there were fairly small populations that traveled to the New World. If they didn't bring the diseases with them, there was only about 10,000 years for disease evolution, and a much smaller population for much of that time.




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