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This is not, strictly speaking, totally accurate. Praxeology doesn't necessarily agree with this viewpoint.


That's why you shouldn't follow Austrian economics.

Edit: also, Austrian economics is like pseudoscience, it isn't representative of real economics


Some would say that the Keynesian model is psuedoscience for having untestable priors. I don't have a dog in the fight but neither do I think your screed against Austrian economics is an airtight argument.


Which model fits reality better? I think the answer is clear given the evidence.

Edit: what are the priors you are speaking of.




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